Sunday, March 8, 2015

Logic Time

                                    Contributed by Carl Mefford












To those who would claim that obedience to the expressed will and stated standards of Elohim (in other words, the Torah) is essentially equitable with falling away from Grace (whatever that is supposed to mean, coming from an individual who would, in the next breath, likely claim that salvation only ever requires a simple and ultimately empty expression of belief, and the Law, or Torah, is therefore irrelevant), I would ask the following:
Why would Elohim (God) submit His Torah to humanity, establish a nation and a cultural identity beneath the guidelines of that Torah as a sort of constitution, communicate to that nation through the prophets a message of righteous devotion to that Torah, guard the reliability of that Torah's expression through the generations to follow via the priesthood, protect the continuity of the Jewish people beneath the seal of Torah through countless captivities and conflicts, and ultimately bring to fruition the Person of the Messiah prophesied throughout the Torah in order to clarify (in relation to the Sabbath), amend (in relation to the sin offering), and uphold (in relation to His own observance) that very same Torah; only to reveal to mankind, through a Gentile Church intentionally and disobediently severed from the commonwealth of Israel, that despite His own establishment of Torah as a light of righteous conduct to the wayward nations, both Jew and Gentile, His 'New Covenant' decree would be to oppose the Torah and establish a new Law wherein observance of the Torah would itself be regarded as sin?
All theological gymnastics and twisted textual interpretations aside, does such a position, at its core, make even the slightest bit of good sense? Think about it, friends...